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Re:Sartre and Borges on Orson Welles by Jun8 on Friday May 01, 2015 @03:55PM (#9474088)
Borges at least made some interesting points (most of which are spot on, e.g. the film being too grand, etc.) but Sartre's review is populistic:

"Kane might have been interesting for the Americans, [but] it is completely passé for us, because the whole film is based on a misconception of what cinema is all about."

What does that even mean, assuming "us" means the French and not film connoisseurs anywhere in the world? Note that Truffaut, who was himself heavily influenced by Hitchock, later heavily criticizes general tendencies of French film of this era in a famous essay on (PDF: https://soma.sbcc.edu/users/davega/FILMST_113/Filmst113_ExFi...)

This xkcd strip seemed to be relevant in this case: https://xkcd.com/1112/

Re:Sartre and Borges on Orson Welles by AnimalMuppet on Friday May 01, 2015 @04:09PM (#9474178)
Remember that Sartre was an existentialist. He therefore defines cinema to be an existentialist thing, and then criticizes Kane for not fitting into Sartre's definition.

But to paraphrase Shakespeare: "There are more things in cinema, O Sartre, than are dreamt of in your philosophy."

Re:Sartre and Borges on Orson Welles by sp332 on Friday May 01, 2015 @04:32PM (#9474329)
Welles' F for Fake is practically a treatise on phenomenology, and it's nearly all in the present tense.
Re:Sartre and Borges on Orson Welles by justifier on Saturday May 02, 2015 @02:54AM (#9476160)
as per the xkcd.. interestingly someone at the top of the chess game agreed with cueball:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chess960

Re:Sartre and Borges on Orson Welles by olavk on Friday May 01, 2015 @04:55PM (#9474456)
It seems from the quote that Sartre simply finds flashbacks uncinematic.