I have no proofs; I don't think very many proofs exist with regards to this topic.
From what I've been able to gather, I think the cardinality of the normal and non-normal numbers are the same, even though the non-normal numbers are measurably greater because of probability distributions. This is a paradox that I don't really understand. http://forums.xkcd.com/viewtopic.php?f=3&t=4270
How sure are you with that one? Mind to supply a proof?