Re:Why do roots of polynomials tend to have absolute value 1?
by conistonwater on Sunday October 05, 2014 @07:50AM
(#8412052)
This is the heuristic explanation given in the answer just below the top one, so you are definitely right there.
I also think it's important to mention that the roots ax^300-b have magnitude (b/a)^(1/300), which is much closer to 1 than b/a, which is why the magnitudes of a and b don't matter very much.
I also think it's important to mention that the roots ax^300-b have magnitude (b/a)^(1/300), which is much closer to 1 than b/a, which is why the magnitudes of a and b don't matter very much.