Is this proven somewhere or you just assume the optimal strategy for markets is continuous?
I mean, it's not clear that the optimal strategy for "slightly imperfect markets" is at all close to the optimal strategy for markets with perfect information. And I actually doubt it can be proven, in the general case.
I've asked a couple of economists about this, but didn't get a satisfying answer. To be fair, it wasn't their area at all - and I may just have misunderstood what they were saying.
I don't think this follows at all. It isn't clear that if the assumptions are almost true the outcome reasonably close to that if the assumptions were true.
Even if it does hold true remember that economists view monopolies as perfectly efficient solutions but that in that scenario it is efficient because the monopoly captures all the available value not the consumers. I also believe that the maths behind the efficient market hypothesis break down if its assumptions don't hold.
There is no market anywhere in the world that is 100% efficient, because the costs of getting to efficiency are prohibitively high. It's like trying to reach the speed of light - you can expend more and more effort getting closer and closer, but you can never actually reach it.
I'm not saying that what we have now is perfect, but it's a damn sight better than what we used to have.