I bought a house once, lived there for seven years, then sold it. I currently no longer own any land (I rent an apartment). So are you saying that I "was guilty" during those seven years and stopped being "guilty" when I sold it, because now somebody else is "guilty" in my stead?

I'm actually surprised your (weird) claim is so restricted. Why are people who make use of land not also "guilty"? If I work for a company situated on some land, or I drive to work on roads situated on some land, shouldn't that count too?