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Re:Capital Man: Thomas Piketty is economics’ biggest sensati... by jgalt212 on Sunday April 20, 2014 @09:19PM (#7619205)
Does anyone have a short and sweet one of Piketty's most profound findings:

the data reveals a deeper historical tendency for the rate of return on capital to outstrip the overall rate of economic growth, leading to greater and greater concentrations of wealth at the very top. quote from NY Times article: www.nytimes.com/2014/04/19/books/thomas-piketty-tours-us-for-his-new-book.html

Why does the rate of return on capital exceed the rate of economic growth? Isn't this just indicative of an asset bubble? And bubbles don't last forever. Or do they (if the Fed is always bailing the banks out)?

Re:Capital Man: Thomas Piketty is economics’ biggest sensati... by nagi2k4 on Sunday April 20, 2014 @09:30PM (#7619246)
The Economist's review of his book gives a pretty good summary of his thesis. http://www.economist.com/blogs/freeexchange/2014/01/inequali...
Re:Capital Man: Thomas Piketty is economics’ biggest sensati... by stormbrew on Sunday April 20, 2014 @10:17PM (#7619396)
From the linked article:

> "But Marx's original critique of capitalism was not that it made for lousy growth rates. It was that a rising concentration of wealth couldn't be sustained politically."

I feel like this is one of the very most important things to consider in any discussion of wealth concentration. Economic growth does not necessarily correlate with a broadly pleasant experience for all participants in that economy. I think we came out of the 20th century with it being taken as axiomatic that some kind of tradeoff must be made to achieve both goals in concert somehow, but this understanding seems to be receding (really starting with the rise of austerity policy in the 80s, but coming very much to a head lately).

Re:Capital Man: Thomas Piketty is economics’ biggest sensati... by cadlin on Sunday April 20, 2014 @10:14PM (#7619388)
The data is derived empirically; that r > g has been the historical norm since the industrial revolution, with the notable exception of the period ~1910-1970.

If that fact changes then the entire premise of the book is wrong. But the thesis of the book is grounded in historical evidence (this is how the world works), not any particular theory that answers "why."

Re:Capital Man: Thomas Piketty is economics’ biggest sensati... by pdonis on Monday April 21, 2014 @03:48PM (#7623236)
r > g has been the historical norm since the industrial revolution, with the notable exception of the period ~1910-1970

Actually, the data says quite a bit more than that. I'm looking at the chart shown in Krugman's review (Figure 1, a bit more than halfway down the page):

http://www.nybooks.com/articles/archives/2014/may/08/thomas-...

First, this chart says that r > g has been the historical norm since antiquity, not just since the industrial revolution. The first data point on the chart is for years "0 - 1000". I'm assuming that Piketty's book gives some explanation of how he figured out the rate of return on capital during the Dark Ages. :)

Second, the chart says that the difference between r and g decreased all through the period studied, up to the "1913 - 1950" data point, when r < g became true for the first time. Then, up through the "1950 - 2012" data point, r and g both rose sharply, but r < g was still true, and the difference between the two was more or less the same.

Third, the chart says that, for the rest of the 21st century, not only will r > g be true again, but r will continue to rise while g will fall sharply--which has never happened before in history. So I think it's wrong to claim that Piketty's prediction for the 21st century is just a prediction of things "returning to the historical norm". It's not--it's a prediction of a drastic change from the historical norm.