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Re:"Free-to-play" misleading advertising in Europe by baddox on Saturday March 01, 2014 @08:06PM (#7327128)
> The nation I'm a citizen of has a government that renews the consent of the government on a regular basis with free, fair, universal elections.

At best, that just renews the consent of those who do consent. If I didn't vote, or voted for the losing candidate or option, then I am still governed despite not consenting.

Re:"Free-to-play" misleading advertising in Europe by djur on Sunday March 02, 2014 @03:28AM (#7328288)
"Consent of the governed" refers to consent of the polity (by some form of majoritarian process), not to individual consent. Individuals do not have the unrestricted option to remove themselves from society; universal consent is unnecessary, unworkable, and undesirable.
Re:"Free-to-play" misleading advertising in Europe by baddox on Sunday March 02, 2014 @06:17AM (#7328708)
> "Consent of the governed" refers to consent of the polity (by some form of majoritarian process), not to individual consent.

That's precisely my point. It's a linguistic trick to make it sound like an exchange is justified despite there not actually being consent. The analogy would be Apple forcefully taking x hundred dollars from you, giving you an iPhone, then saying the exchange is justified because 50.1% of the smartphone market consensually buys iPhones. (I made up that number, obviously.)