Re:Job polarisation and the decline of middle-class workers’...
by jsnell on Thursday February 13, 2014 @03:52PM
(#7234232)
At that level you might as well argue that WWI was caused by agriculture, because without agriculture the war would not have happened. Any history without aristocracy or monied interests would be likewise completely unrecognizable. But neither social nor economic inequality plays any significant part in any credible narrative on the causes of the war that I've read. (And I've read many).
If the economic suppression of Germany by the rest of Europe and the Great Depression hadn't happened (global income inequality, after a fashion), would WW2 have happened?