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Re:Job polarisation and the decline of middle-class workers’... by angersock on Thursday February 13, 2014 @02:02PM (#7233414)
Tell me, if the aristocracy and monied interests (directly enabled by vast income inequality) hadn't existed, would WW1 have happened?

If the economic suppression of Germany by the rest of Europe and the Great Depression hadn't happened (global income inequality, after a fashion), would WW2 have happened?

Re:Job polarisation and the decline of middle-class workers’... by jsnell on Thursday February 13, 2014 @03:52PM (#7234232)
At that level you might as well argue that WWI was caused by agriculture, because without agriculture the war would not have happened. Any history without aristocracy or monied interests would be likewise completely unrecognizable. But neither social nor economic inequality plays any significant part in any credible narrative on the causes of the war that I've read. (And I've read many).
Re:Job polarisation and the decline of middle-class workers’... by nickff on Thursday February 13, 2014 @02:20PM (#7233565)
You are attempting to make assertions in high causal density situations; the evidence supports an infinite number of conclusions, and yours are not particularly convincing.