Re:Why are US corporate profits so high? Because wages are s...
by Tycho on Wednesday January 29, 2014 @07:52AM
(#7143493)
I would say the diff between actor and salaryman are superficial: yes the expectations are different but their contracts have the same fundamental property (you do some work, then you get irreversibly paid for it).
However I think what's really happening in this debate is that one side is arguing about conditions for individual labourers, and the other about labor in aggregate.
The two can lead to very different conclusions. For instance high income tax is good for individuals who benefit from public spending, but it also consolidates the gap between those who already own the wealth and those whose only chance to acquire it was through higher income. So in a sense it's bad for 'the class'. Could probably think of a better example but hopefully you get what I mean.
2. A movie actor is (I think) generally engaged on a limited-term contract to make a particular movie. That's quite a different situation from a (so-called) permanent employee who is (foolishly or not) hoping to go on being paid for an indefinite period.
3. The real complaint (as I understand it) is not simply "Employees should get a substantial fraction of the large upside if their company has a good year"; it's that it seems a lot of employees are getting neither that upside nor security and stability: they are in big danger in bad years but don't get the big gains in good years. Or, to put it differently, the primary complaint isn't that employees get exposed to a different pattern of risk from employers; it's simply that they are underpaid.
4. As it happens, I think there's a lot to be said for paying movie actors partly in proportion to the success of the movie. (Though I fear that in practice that would turn into a way to underpay them grotesquely, via "Hollywood accounting".) So I don't think I'm guilty of the inconsistency you allege. (Others might be; I don't know.)