Re:Why do chocolate chip cookies have 37% (1/e) chocolate in...
by jrockway on Sunday January 26, 2014 @05:36PM
(#7127356)
I doubt it has anything to do with 1/e. Someone in marketing probably liked the number 37% and manufacturing said, "yeah, that won't cost us much extra". Nothing to do with infinite sums or the distribution of chocolate chips in dough. Just marketing.
For the same reason, why is Ivory 99.44% pure? Because 99.44% sounded catchier than 99%.
For the same reason, why is Ivory 99.44% pure? Because 99.44% sounded catchier than 99%.