TL;DR: Judges don't philosophise about specific methods for circumventing their intentions.
If all actions but the one the government wants are ment with punishment then it is functionally equivalent to ordering/mandating/requiring a specific action.
If there is precedence for punishing all but the course of action desired by the government I would be interested. If there is legal precedence for ordering/mandating/requiring an action being different form punishing all but the desired action I would also be interested in knowing.
I am definitely interested in any court cases that set a precedence for ordering/mandating/require lying.
I am not sure what I think about your scenario off the top of my head but I do consider it different.
The question is not "can a US court compel XYZ US citizen to lie", it is "can a US court compel XYZ swiss citizen to lie".
So you should take note, of course, if our warrant canary ceases to update. You should also take note if the US one updates but the swiss (or Hong Kong) one does not ...
This is made easier as a local warrant canary is available to all account holders in their /tmp dir ...
ssh [email protected] tail -200 /tmp/canary.txt
Cheers!
If there is any precedence for any US court requiring public citizen to lie I definitely want to know about it.
If the courts are acting like they have this power then it will greatly change my perception of how the courts, NSA, and congress are currently acting.