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Re:If x is a fraction, x^x and x^x^x are irrational. But can... by thomasbk on Tuesday July 23, 2013 @11:37AM (#6090673)
No; for that to be the case, equivalence would have to be proven (i.e. construct a proof of Shanuel that works when you assume this theory to be true.)

Right now, it could be that there exists a proof that is valid and does not depend on Shanuel's conjecture.

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