Re:If x is a fraction, x^x and x^x^x are irrational. But can...
by thomasbk on Tuesday July 23, 2013 @11:37AM
(#6090673)
No; for that to be the case, equivalence would have to be proven (i.e. construct a proof of Shanuel that works when you assume this theory to be true.)
Right now, it could be that there exists a proof that is valid and does not depend on Shanuel's conjecture.
Right now, it could be that there exists a proof that is valid and does not depend on Shanuel's conjecture.