> Where in the Constitution is Congress authorized to make laws regarding the practice of religion?

The Commerce Clause, of course! I imagine they would argue that money donated to churches would otherwise be used to purchase goods and services. Or that time spent worshipping would otherwise be used in production.

I'm only half joking.

If you think the parent is incorrect, I invite everyone to look up Gonzales v. Raich, and Wickard v. Filburn. Everything is commerce, and therefore regulated under Congress via the commerce clause.

I don't think it's incorrect, which is why I brought up the commerce clause in the first place (with Filburn in mind). I agree, to congress everything is commerce. It's just such a farce that it would strain credulity if it wasn't so clearly evidenced. We truly live in a mockery of a rational world.

forgive me. I was breaking down the fourth wall, and talking to the reader of the thread themselves. I was trying to support your argument. :)