I. I think you have missed the point antr was trying to make by stating the nationalities (ie, the US does not have a stranglehold on pharmaceutical innovation and development)

ii. Lets for a second do a fermi equation on those us and European revenue figures.

We have roughly the same revenue figures We have roughly the same population (give or take 20-30 million) between Europe and the is

Now if there is no profit to be made in Europe either the Europeans consume vastly more pharmaceuticals (possible but unlikely) OR there is profit to be made in the European market