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Re:Can the Oil Shock Alone Explain the Financial Crisis? by brc on Thursday April 23, 2009 @09:24AM (#575516)
The central tenet is that it is the 1970's all over again. And I've been bleating this for years to my friends (who are sick of hearing it). This is how the story goes: 1) long, expensive and difficult foreign war that becomes increasingly unpopular at home 2) increasing government spending on military adventures means increases in debt and inflationary policies 3) oil producing countries realise the dollars they are being paid with are worth less and less, do their best to manipulate the oil price higher through supply shortages 4) oil and gold prices start to rise precipitously 5) interest in alternative energy starts to rise, and detroit car makers get into serious trouble 6) recession and long bear market for stocks 7) high inflation and low growth

You can (roughly) overlay this pattern on the late '60's, early '70s, with (6) running up until the late 1970's. And you can lay it on 2002-onwards, we're at point (6) at the monent. There were no CDO's in 1970, but I'm sure there was something else. I would classify the CDO/Subprime mortgage problems as a problem magnifier rather than a problem cause. In theory, as long as a person can keep paying a subprime mortgage, or can refinance to a better rate a few years down the track, there's nothing wrong with them. However, too many were given to too many people, and thus what might have been a small slowdown turned into a banking and credit crisis.

Re:Can the Oil Shock Alone Explain the Financial Crisis? by eru on Thursday April 23, 2009 @09:47AM (#575574)
Isn't this a bit too US centric?
Re:Can the Oil Shock Alone Explain the Financial Crisis? by brc on Thursday April 23, 2009 @09:18PM (#576779)
Yes precisely, because the similarity is that the US started the process of both times by starting expensive foreign wars and borrowing big to pay for them. Nixon dropped the Gold standard because countries holding USD (notably the French) were starting to get nervous about the massive waste of money in Vietnam and started demanding Gold for their USD. That was the true start to inflation in the 1970's, and very much a US-based event.

I didn't compare it to the Asian financial crisis of 1998 or the LTCM crisis of 1999 because the US didn't start those off.

My main point is the Vietnam ~= Iraq and Oil Crisis 1973/74 ~= Oil Price Spike 2007/8, so therefore hyperinflation 1975-1982 ~= hyperinflation 20009-??

Re:Can the Oil Shock Alone Explain the Financial Crisis? by ajju on Thursday April 23, 2009 @10:29AM (#575659)
The main difference is how closely linked the world economies are now than they were in the 70s. Additionally, CDOs made it nearly impossible to separate the subprime mortgages from the prime ones or even performing mortgates from non performing ones. Because of the incredibly complex nature of CDOs and the close linkage between financial instruments and world economies, the subprime crisis is (was) not so much a magnifier as the first domino.