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Re:Goldman-Sachs Posts $1.8 Billion 1Q Profit, Looks to Sell... by anamax on Thursday April 16, 2009 @06:56PM (#566060)
> If someone has pledged the majority of what is owed to me in collateral, it is wrong for people to imply that the 10 billion flowing through the government was just some windfall flowthrough.

I didn't say that it was a windfall. I said that Goldman was made whole by the US govt via AIG. If other folks are losing money in similar circumstances, it's fair to ask why Goldman is being treated differently.

And, even if everyone is being made whole, the question remains - why should the US make them whole? Why shouldn't they lose money for taking bad counter-party risks? They were planning to keep the money that they made for assuming said risks, so why shouldn't they take the hit when things work out badly?

If I buy something that turns out to be worth less than I expected, I take the loss. Why not Goldman and other banks?

> They got what they were owed, and the taxpayers got their 7.5 billion in collateral back. If the taxpayers did not pay the 10 billion

I'll pay $7.5B for $10B.

> In either case, whether AIG was allowed to fail or not, they would have been made whole.

Maybe, maybe not, but in any event, not by the US govt.

Re:Goldman-Sachs Posts $1.8 Billion 1Q Profit, Looks to Sell... by op12 on Friday April 17, 2009 @07:47AM (#566701)
> Why shouldn't they lose money for taking bad counter-party risks?

I don't really know how else to explain this. They shouldn't lose money for taking counter party risk...because they were willing to pay the price to insure themselves on the counter party risk. Why do you keep insisting that they need to lose money? They had 7.5 in collateral, and they insured themselves for the other 2.5 in the event they defaulted. This is the definition of protecting yourself from bad counter-party risks.

> They were planning to keep the money that they made for assuming said risks, so why shouldn't they take the hit when things work out badly?

...because they insured themselves. Imagine someone who bought a share of Google stock and then also bought a put option on it to protect themselves. Then the stock goes down. It's like asking why that person shouldn't take the hit because they were going to keep the money if Google had gone up. Goldman doesn't take the hit because 1) they were prudently collateralized and 2) they PAID for CDS protection on the rest that was owed to them that was not collateralized. CDS is not free, of course.

If they were willing to pay the insurance and demand collateral, why should they have to take a hit at all?

> I'll pay $7.5B for $10B.

So would I, but this is obviously a mischaracterization. It's like a homeowner who defaults on their mortgage and gives a house worth 250k to the bank who lent them 500k to buy it. They are not "paying 250 for 500".

> Maybe, maybe not, but in any event, not by the US govt.

This is not really a maybe, maybe not situation. Clearly with the collateral and insurance arranagements, Goldman would not have lost money as a counterparty to AIG. If you have an explanation otherwise I would be interested to hear it.