It's almost just like in the real world...
(Also, there's plenty of jurisprudence for that when for instance it comes to online gambling.)
We're a Dutch not-for-profit, running under a US .org domain name, with some servers hosted in Germany, and our visitors come from everywhere.
Right now the decision is only to annoy Dutch visitors (based on IP), but I've been waiting to implement it until there is some clarity.
Imagine a dutch company with servers in the netherlands, witha .com address. Why would they be exempt from dutch law?
I'm not arguing either way, and truthfully I'm not sure how I feel about it, but it gets hard to determine jurisdiction when you're talking about an entity (owner + domain + site files/server) being split across multiple jurisdictions.
Sometimes laws can be written as "a person/company shall not cause personal data to be stored without users consent" (say). So if you, in the Netherlands, programme your server in the US to store personal data without consent, then you might be breaking the law. (Since you have caused a computer to do that.)
Is the Dutch law only for .nl domains? Domains hosted in NL? Sites owned by Dutch companies?