Re:How real are real numbers? (2004)
by francisdavey on Tuesday July 28, 2026 @12:37AM
(#49079413)
His second "proof" of uncountability is very poorly explained. Strictly speaking it is false, since all his reasoning applies equally to the rationals. What he shows is that a countable set would have zero measure. You have to also show that (say) the real interval [0,1] has measure 1 (or at least positive measure) to get a contradiction. That requires some more work. You have to be using some property of the reals in order to prove uncountability, as of course the Cantor diagonal argument does.
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