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Here's what looks like a reliable source: https://www.washingtonpost.com/archive/style/2008/09/29/what...
Leaving aside the fact that I'm right, would you like a short treatise on why it couldn't be, even if I was wrong, starting with the evidentiary standards required to defame a public figure?
I mean it’s pretty widely reported using euphemisms of the time. This includes by the Washington post…
https://www.washingtonpost.com/archive/style/2008/09/29/what...