By what logic is an oxytocin pill in this context considered "recreational narcotics"? It's a pain pill. A drug that is legal to prescribe and probably was legally prescribed to somebody. Even if some nitwit bureaucrat defines possessing that pill without a prescription as illegal, what logic lets you determine he was breaking that law "deliberately" as opposed to, say, "ignorantly"?

The fact that he consented to search tends to argue otherwise.