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Re:Does Gödel Matter? by mstoehr on Monday December 22, 2008 @11:31AM (#406507)
Although it does lead to a mathematically uninteresting paradox: if you let A be the axioms of set theory and you add an axiom P which states that A proves x and not x, (i.e. set theory is inconsistent) then A' = A and P is still consistent.
Re:Does Gödel Matter? by d0mine on Monday December 22, 2008 @01:51PM (#406699)
For clearity: A' = (A and P)
Re:Does Gödel Matter? by cchooper on Tuesday December 23, 2008 @05:04AM (#407439)
Ah, that makes a lot more sense now!