Re:What Do We Get Wrong About the Byzantine Empire?
by menchauser on Tuesday February 27, 2024 @10:00AM
(#39524888)
I believe, before the time of Cyril and Methodius there were the idea that western churches shared the logic that it is possible to perform religious services only in three languages: Aramaic (Biblical Hebrew), Latin, and Greek. Cyril actually had to convince the Roman Pope that his translation of Bible to slavonic language is legit, only after that the tri-lingual restriction was considered as wrong.
Some sources could be found here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trilingual_heresy
Well that's just plain wrong. Sure, Rome (not the "Catholic", the East calls itself Catholic too) preferred Latin, but it was never universal. Anyway, the rite wasn't standardized to the rite of St Francis (but not imposed) until the Council of Trent, 100 years after the fall of Constantinople (hardly an empire by then).
When exactly did Rome object to other languages? The first 1000 years when East and West were in communion and Greek was the primary language of the Western Church?