No, he doesn't. That's your gloss on Hobbes. He didn't mean "inequality" in the modern liberal sense that you are using it. You cannot import modern "thinking" (if that's the word for it) back to the 18th Century.

I suppose you're going to seize on the word "inequality" here:

https://courses.lumenlearning.com/suny-hccc-worldhistory2/ch...