https://www.brookings.edu/articles/how-does-the-government-m...
There is also PPI for producer prices, and the GDP deflator used for GDP.
If the US government and law already is using a number of different metrics to account for inflation impacts for different purposes, it absolutely makes sense to debate which particular measure is best for this area.
But there's not one single true number, different groups of people are affected by different measures (e.g. the use of CPI-W for social security payments is thoughtfully meant to be more representative of costs incurred by the typical social security recipient than is CPI-U)
Fair point, but in the context the previous comment, "wages" is basically never considered a serious contender for measuring inflation in economics.
Like, you're using big words to indicate that under no situation is this true, when the reality is that "inflation" is not by definition CPI. CPI is one measure of inflation.
But it just caught my eye that this seems, extra wrong. It's hard to read something extra wrong on the internet, and yet it feels like you've succeeded.
People are wrong on all of the time, but to call something tautologically false when it's trivially true, is peak wrongness.
"inflation" is by definition CPI. Therefore the claim that using another metric to "include the impacts of inflation" is tautologically false. The word you want is "affordability".