No per Capita analysis? No income analysis? Only two cities?
This is actually a challenging question to answer. Thankfully other people have done research and we can reference that if we actually want to know the answer, rather than just prove our priors to ourselves.
Let's look at the prices in Chicago, which is a pretty dense place: https://www.realtor.com/realestateandhomes-search/Chicago_IL... - $350K
Now let's look at the fairly bland, suburban college town where I grew up, which is not dense: https://www.realtor.com/realestateandhomes-search/Eugene_OR/... - $495K!
Eugene is far more expensive than the dense place with a lot of amenities and jobs.
This relationship between density and cost reverses for nearby towns like Springfield even though they share many of Eugene’s characteristics.
This sketch of an analysis is significantly worse than what's in the article. You can't estimate effects by correlating levels. You need to correlate deltas, at minimum. You also need a reason to think those deltas are causally linked, in that you're not suffering from omitted variable bias, which is why you need a natural experiment. The article follows this correct methodology by discussing the Austin natural experiment.
The author clearly has an agenda and basically wrote the article around it. Why all the conjecture?
I was bored so I did a very crude estimate.
Houston has 982,694 homes according to the census data in 665 square miles.
Austin has 426,899 homes in 271 square miles.
So Austin is denser and more expensive. To me this makes sense. Denser areas are more popular, and popularity results in high income people coming in and biding up prices. This is why there are no dense areas that are cheap.