They aren’t actually different sizes, though.
All this proves is that under specific set theoretic assumptions, a contradiction arises if you define “size” as “cardinality” and assume that a particular bijective relation exists between your two infinite sets.
It doesn’t actually mean the sets have different sizes, it just means they differ under a set of assumptions that may (or may not) be useful for your purposes.
What's your precise definition of size that allows someone to actually make a rigorous argument comparing the size of any two sets?
Similarly, I can also work around Russel’s paradox by introducing infinite universes, but that doesn’t actually resolve the paradox, it just provides a set (ha ha) of rules that may be leveraged to formalize the Set category and otherwise prove useful things.
Just because your formalization admits a proof by contradiction doesn’t actually prove two infinite sets have different sizes, it just proves that a contradiction exists under your assumptions.
Well, yes. :)
We can prove that no such 1-1 map exists between the integers (an infinite set) and the decimals in the interval [0,1] (another infinite set). The proof is by contradiction, meaning that we assume such a 1-1 map exists and prove it leads to a contradiction, therefore our assumption that the 1-1 map exists must be false.
So suppose we were able to construct a map from all decimals in [0,1], by enumerating them according to some clever rule. Let d_i be the ith digit of number i in your mapping. For each I pick another different digit d_i'. Let's construct the number with decimal representation D = . d_0' d_1' d_2' ...
Assuming we have our 1-1 map, it must be somewhere in our mapping. Let's say it's element k. By our labeling concention the kth decimal digit of D is actually d_k. However, this contradicts our method of construction of D. Therefore our assumption that there is a 1-1 map between decimals in [0,1] and the integers must be false.
It is in this sense that there are infinities of different sizes.