Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others?
by yarg on Thursday April 20, 2023 @05:22AM
(#35637875)
I don't think that it's actually formulating a bijection across the reals - the generator function looks to me to be generating the complete set of rationals.
> Represent each real number x∈[0,1) as a sequence of DIGITS, where each DIGIT is either in {0,…,8} or is of the form 10∗(10k−1)+i with k≥1 and i∈{0,…,8} (i.e., in {90,…,98;990,…,998;9990,…,9998;…}.
He's iterating to infinity, that sure as shit sounds countable to me.
Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others?
by ginnungagap on Thursday April 20, 2023 @06:11AM
(#35638100)
He's associating to each x in [0,1) an infinite sequence of natural numbers (just like decimal representations do), and there's uncountably many such sequences
Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others?
by yarg on Thursday April 20, 2023 @06:34AM
(#35638217)
I may have misread that one, but I still think the reverse mapping only gets as far as within arbitrary bounds.
Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others?
by yarg on Thursday April 20, 2023 @06:27AM
(#35638188)
But he's defining the numbers with a property that makes them countably infinite?
Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others?
by yarg on Thursday April 20, 2023 @06:50AM
(#35638285)
The part that seems problematic is "each real number" the reals exist across bounds, I'm not sure there can be an "each".
I think his iterator is generating infinitesimals of rational and not continuous nature.
It is true that there is no continuous bijection R -> R^2. It is also true that this has nothing to with cardinality, which is only about the existence of bijections (and indeed is defined for arbitrary sets with no topological structure for which continuity makes no sense)