I can't speak for other countries because I never looked at the data but in Germany, increasing wealth inequality correlates with decreasing union membership in recent decades while the big and broadly distributed wealth gains of the post-war era correlated with historically high levels of union memberships. Intuitively it would make sense that rising income inequality is the result of too little unionization, not too much or it being irrelevant.

Also, there is plenty of actual research that backs this up, i.e.:

- https://www.epi.org/publication/unions-help-reduce-dispariti...

Data from the World Inequality Database refutes your statement - https://wid.world/world

Every single socialist European nation (including the Scandinavian ones) has a better wealth distribution than the USA.

> So unions didn't really help that much with that...

Can you back your statement up with facts instead of hand-waving away paragraphs of meaningful discussion that came before this comment?

> refutes your statement

Credit Suisse says otherwise when measured using Gini:

https://www.credit-suisse.com/media/assets/corporate/docs/ab...

Of course they are possible not the most trustworthy source given the recent events..

To be fair I don't know how to explain the disparity, the report even says this: "For all other countries, except the United States, the wealth shares of the top groups are expected to be understated"