Do we know for sure that there’s not enough to make all depositors whole, all assets considered? Or is it just that they can’t quickly liquidate things to get to the total?

I had read a summary of a Kleiner Perkins analysis recently that said the total assets they hold, some of which are those awful-yielding instruments they’re locked into for 10 years, covers their assets. But since some of those instruments cannot be liquidated anywhere close to quickly, the FDIC will just need to hold onto those for awhile and front money for the bank in the short term.

Of course, who knows if that analysis or the summary of it is correct.