Has it changed since then? Have they found a significant number of human civilizations that use divergent grammars?
Harris’s operator grammar was based on set theory however Chomsky was enamored with formal logic and ran in that direction. Also, Chomsky became famous while Harris didn’t.
Operator grammar is self-discoverable and he published a full description of English grammar in the 1980’s using this theory and an extension in the 1990’s which generalized to other languages.
It is not fully deterministic (final word selection and ordering is probabilistic), but it is much more convincing to me and in line with how we understand brains to work.
Over the last 20 years Chomsky has begun to fall out of favor because it’s just so complicated and requires external structures, etc.
Any theory that explains all the facts is valid, there can be more than one competing theory. Fame of the author absolutely matters and so does elegance of the theory.
Chomsky has held on so long because it did pretty well and he became very famous, but over time it has needed larger and larger patches to cover its flaws, so other explanations are gaining traction once again.
No the elegance of the theory does not matter. The truth of the theory does. I'm saying does the universal grammar you describe, is it actually universal? Amongst all the languages in the world, do they all share this other grammar you describe? If not then the theory is incorrect. It doesn't matter how elegant the theory is.
I brought this up specifically because your reasoning wasn't "scientific" it was more along the lines of logical elegance.
>Chomsky has held on so long because it did pretty well and he became very famous, but over time it has needed larger and larger patches to cover its flaws, so other explanations are gaining traction once again.
See this makes sense and is basically the answer to the question I am asking. So you're basically saying that there were flaws? As in he had to make up new rules constantly because the science was contradicting his theory. Am I correct in this characterization?
I’m not an expert, but if I recall I think the big flaw was insistence on determinism.
And to my knowledge operator grammar is universal to the degree there isn’t a counter example in the dozen of languages he explored and hundreds he had others help him with. But to my knowledge the only language he fully mapped was English.
Edit: take a look at the article on Wikipedia.
First off, we know that overall the concept of language is humans is an emergent phenomenon. It developed from natural selection from simple components so there's validity that the same thing can occur in an LLM where some overarching emergent structure develops from simple primitives.
At the same time we do know that a sort of universal grammar exists among humans. Our language capacity is biased in a certain way and that it is unlikely for it to learn languages of a very extreme and divergent grammar from the universal one discovered by Noam chomsky. That means our brain is unlikely to be as universally simple as an LLM.
I think the key here is that the human mind has explicit linguistic tools but the these tools are still emergent in nature.