> end of the Black Death occurred over 400 years before the start of the Industrial Revolution

“Right before” was hyperbole. The population, and in particular, labor effects, were nevertheless persistent. Western labor was anomalously expensive.

Why would you double down at this point?

Just admit you were completely wrong and move on. It's fine, I'm wrong a lot too.

> Why would you double down at this point?

Because the thesis holds [1][2]. It’s far from a controversial theory in medieval and developmental economics.

[1] https://books.google.com/books?hl=en&lr=&id=EUoCBAAAQBAJ&oi=...

[2] https://scholar.google.com/scholar?hl=en&as_sdt=0%2C51&q=Bla...

Why would you think you’ve dunked on him when you’re the one who is wrong? The divergence between Europe and the rest of the world began in the 15th and 16th century: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Great_Divergence. The divergence became massive during the Industrial Revolution, but it was underway long before that.

Because he said that "The Black Death increased labour’s bargaining power right before the Industrial Revolution."

Come on, that's hilariously wrong, and no attempt to walk it back makes it less funny.

Of course, I'm just a bit on edge because I'm writing this post right after the 30 years war has started.