Income inequality is downstream from unregulated capitalism.

How many big anti-monopoly moves were actually done in the last 20 years compared to pre-Reagan or pre-Thatcher times?

I don’t understand what point you’re making because (1) no one has unregulated capitalism (2) globalization didn’t meaningfully exist in the pre-Reagan era, and (3) how would a “pre-Reagan globalization” not have exported jobs? “Exporting jobs” is pretty much the definition of globalization as it pertains to wealthy countries.

EDIT: Also (4) I’m pretty sure almost every “very regulated” economy in the world has more inequality as a consequence of globalization. It’s really hard to imagine a practical globalization that doesn’t create concentrated wealth and poverty.