Your bank can loan out as much as it wants as long as it's happy with the risk, regardless of its current holding. This is because the loans come first, and any reserve requirements are then taken care of after the fact. So if there's a good loan opportunity it is issued, and then the bank goes looking for available reserves.
And this assumes reserve requirements even exist, which they have not in several countries for decades:
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reserve_requirement#Canada
Reserve requirement are irrelevant to loan creation. Per the Fed itself:
> Changes in reserves are unrelated to changes in lending, and open market operations do not have a direct impact on lending. We conclude that the textbook treatment of money in the transmission mechanism can be rejected.
* https://www.federalreserve.gov/pubs/feds/2010/201041/201041p...
See also the S&P paper "Repeat After Me: Banks Cannot And Do Not 'Lend Out' Reserves":
* https://www.hks.harvard.edu/sites/default/files/centers/mrcb...
The 'money multiplier' does not exist:
* https://research.stlouisfed.org/publications/page1-econ/2021...
Even some central banks openly take this point of view, these days:
https://www.bankofengland.co.uk/-/media/boe/files/quarterly-...
I also don't think that there is consensus across central banks about how money creation actually works, which is pretty fascinating, considering that they all do more or less the same thing (at least the ones that aren't pegging their currency to another one), but apparently under completely different models...
I don’t understand your comment.