Thanks for the clarification! I didn't mean to say the two definitions were equivalent, as indeed they aren't. Rephrasing my second point to (hopefully) eliminate the ambiguity: There are two non-equivalent popular definitions for "almost linear" or "nearly linear" (n^(1+o(1)) and O(n log^k(n)), and nevertheless classifying "n log^1000 n" as almost linear is uncontroversial in the sense that both of the common definitions do it.

(The second paragraph of my original message addressed a point made in the parent's second paragraph, which has since been edited out.)