So can you explain then, where I implyed "that making voting secret creates fear"?

By stating, that there is no need for secret voting, when people are not afraid?

If so, you might want to study basic logic (again). You cannot just reverse statements and implications and jump to conclusions

There can be secret voting, with people scared to speak their minds and secret voting with people not afraid to speak their minds.

And there can be open voting with people scared to speak their minds and open voting with people not afraid to speak their mind.

I think secret voting is only useful, for situations with fear involved. No more, no less.