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A comment on How did Europe become the richest part of the world?. Parent comment

Re:How did Europe become the richest part of the world? by rayiner on Sunday March 20, 2022 @09:08AM (#30742305)
Europe was able to colonize because it was already rich and technologically advanced. By 1700, more than 50 years before the British East India company came to control India, the UK had more than double the per capita GDP of India, and the Netherlands had more than quadrupled the per capita GDP of India.

Note of course that India was already a colony at the time. The origin of Arabs is 8,000 miles away from where I was born, but I have an Arabic last name. Guess how that happened.

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Re:How did Europe become the richest part of the world? by jean_tta on Sunday March 20, 2022 @09:43AM (#30742537)
Is it fair to compare the very small region that is England to the very large region that is India?

A fairer comparison would be Europe vs India at the time, or England vs the most advanced region of India at the time.

"The most advanced region of Europe" vs "the average region of India" is nitpicking.

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