When I look at the pfizer 6 month study (not peer reviewed) I do not see that.
https://www.medrxiv.org/content/10.1101/2021.07.28.21261159v...
When I look at Scotlands data I do not see that.
https://publichealthscotland.scot/media/9475/21-09-29-covid1...
Same with the UK.
https://assets.publishing.service.gov.uk/government/uploads/...
Same with Israel
https://datadashboard.health.gov.il/COVID-19/general
Every dataset I look says the opposite so I would love to see the peer reviewed study that takes into account all potential confounding factors that led you to your conclusion.
Could you please share a meaningful study that comes to this conclusion and does not ignore all potential confounding factors? (I don't mean it in a confrontational way; I'm genuinely curious since I only managed to find heavily confounded data)
The results of the other article I linked, https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s10654-021-00808-7, showing that vaccination does not reduce viral load, supports this notion.
Even in a largely vaccinated population, if you do widespread community testing you will find a lot of asymptomatic cases. If you don't do widespread community testing you won't. So you can have wildly different caseloads in two highly-vaccinated populations, yet no meaningful medical difference in the outcomes (since, as we know, vaccination is an effective prevention against serious illness and death).