Re:Adam Smith and Inequality (2014)
by ZeroGravitas on Sunday September 12, 2021 @08:42PM
(#28506633)
Because they weren't?
This is like describing the freeing of the slaves in America as "attempts at eliminating wealth inequality" (and/or "hatred of rich people").
Yes, the people who owned slaves were generally wealthy. Yes, the slaves were not wealthy. Being given back legal ownership of themselves and their children could be seen as a kind of wealth transfer from rich to poor, but that wasn't the point of it.
This is like describing the freeing of the slaves in America as "attempts at eliminating wealth inequality" (and/or "hatred of rich people").
Yes, the people who owned slaves were generally wealthy. Yes, the slaves were not wealthy. Being given back legal ownership of themselves and their children could be seen as a kind of wealth transfer from rich to poor, but that wasn't the point of it.
Some historical context:
https://www.rbth.com/history/331117-how-abolishing-serfdom-l...