But it's not nearly as clear-cut as your original statement. Like, there's no story that would convince me that refusing sex with someone is somehow sexual abuse (well there is marriage, but the accepted recourse there is divorce). And, generally, preventing other consenting individuals from having sex would would fall under 'being an asshole' at worst not 'sexual abuse', but maybe there's some circumstance where the former could be elevated to the latter. My point is that the implied certainty of your statements higher than warranted.