The US brought democracy to Germany and Japan after WW2.

Germany was a republic with a constitution and elected leaders after 1918.

Kaiser Wilhelm II took power after Bismark, and abdicated at the end of the first war. Wilhelm died in 1941.

Bismarck unified Germany in the latter 1800's as a constitutional federation with suffrage and elected legislatures, I don't know the fine details except it was some form of confederation and is considered a constitutional monarchy with elected legislature.

For a guy who can cite names and dates you show very weak understanding of history.

Technically both Belarus and Russia area also democratic countries. Both countries have this written in their constitutions.

Germany had 12 years of dictatorship from 1933 to 1945.

And most elements of the regime, excluding a few people at the very top, remained in place after 1945. Like the judiciary, municipal authorities, government bureaucracies etc. - and of course the large company owners.

That is true and one of the few successful examples. I wonder if the cold war played a role here, there was an honest ambition not to let Germany fall to the communits.

The US propped up a war criminal in Japan ensuring fifty years of one party rule.

I mean ok, but the parent commenter's claim is that the US is _losing_ standing as a spreader of democracy. This is the premise of my question, and I'm not really interested in a random third-party's view that the premise is wrong, especially when it's as trite a view as this one.

You are asking if people think the propaganda has become less true. It's a nonsense question, as if people ever think the US is/was spreading democracy the propaganda has worked.