correct. Hes in jail because hes a flight risk, whilst he is await the outcome of extradition. This extradition is _different_ to the one he was originally hiding from.
> Assange is accused of did not meet the test of dual criminality.
knowingly publishing government secrets is certainly going to be a specific crime under the heaps of crap thats in the official secrets act.
Yes, and this has no relevance to the claim you first replied to, and no relevance to the correction I made.
> knowingly publishing government secrets is certainly going to be a specific crime under the heaps of crap thats in the official secrets act.
That would be relevant if the US made allegations to that effect, but they can't because merely publishing government secrets is not a crime in the US. See e.g. the Pentagon Papers publication. So figuring out whether it meets the standard in the UK is irrelevant.
This is not how dual criminality works - you can't say "this is illegal in the US, and this other bit over here is illegal in the UK". The same alleged action must be illegal both places.
He has served his sentence for skipping bail. That is also not a justification for extradition, as skipping bail in the UK is not a crime in the US. As such it has no relevance.
Secondly, the point is that the extradition treaty requires "dual criminality". That is, the charge needs to be over something which would have been a crime in the UK to if UK jurisdiction applied.
The comment above is clearly making the argument that what Assange is accused of did not meet the test of dual criminality.