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A comment on The Banning of Joyce's Ulysses.

Re:The Banning of Joyce's Ulysses by logifail on Friday June 25, 2021 @03:58AM (#27628229)
> Because Ulysses could not be legally published in the United States, it could not be copyrighted

I'm struggling to understand that particular statement. Can anyone explain?

EDIT: "Copyright exists automatically in an original work of authorship once it is fixed in a tangible medium"[0]

If you write out your original thoughts on a piece of paper, that's fixing them in a tangible medium, right?

[0] https://www.copyright.gov/circs/circ01.pdf

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Re:The Banning of Joyce's Ulysses by dragonwriter on Friday June 25, 2021 @04:48AM (#27628458)
Automatic copyright is a feature of fairly recent copyright law; the law at the time of Ulysses was different. I don’t offhand know if the upthread comment about it be ineligible for US copyright or thr asserted reason is correct, but pointing to a feature of current US copyright law that didn't exist at the time isn't germane to that o e way or the other.
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