Re:The Queen’s Latin or Who Were the Romans? Part I: Beginni...
by Mediterraneo10 on Friday June 11, 2021 @01:59PM
(#27476526)
> That's because it's almost certainly true!
Actual Indo-Europeanists today eschew the label "Aryan invasion theory" in favour of e.g. “Aryan migration theory”. While genetic evidence makes a (limited) case for presence of force and population movement in the spread of the Indo-European languages to India, the bulk of the spread was through language shift whereby the indigenous inhabitants gradually adopted Indo-European languages as higher prestige.
Re:The Queen’s Latin or Who Were the Romans? Part I: Beginni...
by cmrdporcupine on Friday June 11, 2021 @11:00AM
(#27474302)
Sure, but likely by the time the Aryans got to that region they were not "fair skinned." There was an intervening millennia of hanging out in the Caspian / Bactria / Central Asia before entering the subcontinent [1]. Nor were the Yamnaya people ever really "fair skinned" ; they were likely dark haired and olive skinned.
1 - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bactria%E2%80%93Margiana_Archa...
That's because it's almost certainly true! it's why Indians speak Indo-European languages, and why the same Y-chromosome haplogroup (R1a) is common among (for example) Indian Brahmins and Norwegians.
> This theory is often connected with a view that fairer-skinned people represent "true" Indian culture
The Hindu religion in its most ancient form (see e.g. the Rig Veda) derives from the Proto-Indo-European religion, parts of which have been reconstructed: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European_mythology
(Obviously modern India culture comes from a lot of other sources too!)
> including the Aryans who are said to have invaded India.
You phrase it that was as if to imply that it didn't happen. But I think the evidence that it did: linguistic, genetic, archeological, is very strong.