> Since the out group will exclude people with both traits there should also be a negative correlation there
Not necessarily. Imagine the traits are distributed uniformly and independently in [-1 1]. There is no correlation:
******
******
******
******
******
******
If you select people with at least one positive trait you will find negative correlation in the group + but the correlation will still be zero in the group -. ++++++
++++++
++++++
---+++
---+++
---+++
I guess this paradox could then be thought of as a special case of Simpson's paradox? Since the out group will exclude people with both traits there should also be a negative correlation there, which disappears in the overall population. But in Berkson's case it seems they're implying the subgroup correlation is spurious whereas with Simpson's it could go either way.