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Re:The puzzle of Europe by mrweasel on Monday March 08, 2021 @05:02AM (#26384006)
I honestly had no idea. That's pretty interesting, I wonder if it's because of a few REALLY wealthy individuals?

Generally you have a lower limit to how poor a person can be, in Scandinavia that limit is reasonably high (I sure it doesn't feel that way if you're actually poor), so I would have assumed that would level out the inequality somewhat.

Denmark in particular have also always excluded students from statistics on who's poor, because it's seen a temporary thing. So we don't see them as truly poor, even if they often are, but I suspect that they have to be included in the Gini coefficients calculation.

Re:The puzzle of Europe by wwtrv on Monday March 08, 2021 @05:33AM (#26384232)
In many European countries you can be "poor" (i.e. have low or negative wealth) while still maintaining a relatively high standard of living. The most expensive asset most people own is their home, so if you rent all your life or have a very long mortgage that you don't necessary intend to pay off (which is not uncommon in some countries) you might have very low or negative wealth. And you might not need to save as much due to socialized healthcare, social safety nets, etc.

Looking at the median wealth (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_wealth_pe...), a median person in Spain is 3 times as "rich" then someone in Sweden and Germans or the Dutch are more "poor" than Slovaks or Greeks etc. But this is largely a result of relatively low home ownership rate in most North European countries.

However if we disregard average people and look just at the top 10% or even 1% Sweden is still Remarkably similar to the US:

Wealth Share of the top 10%/1% *

United States: 75.9% / 35.4% Sweden: 75.3% / 37.4% Netherlands: 68% / 26.6% Denmark: 66.6% / 29.3% Germany: 65.1% / 30.2% Norway: 65% / 32% United Kingdom: 59.3% / 24.5% Spain: 55% / 23.8% France: 54.6% / 22.2% ...

* according to https://www.credit-suisse.com/about-us/en/reports-research/g..., see page 168 in "Global wealth databook 2019" fro the full table

Re:The puzzle of Europe by pwinnski on Monday March 08, 2021 @09:24AM (#26386055)
If I had to be poor, I would rather be poor in Europe.

Otherwise, I would rather be wealthy in the USA.

Re:The puzzle of Europe by hjnilsson on Monday March 08, 2021 @07:18AM (#26384882)
In general, greater income tax leads to greater wealth inequality.

The reason is, higher income tax means it is more difficult to become wealthy. So in countries with high income tax, the majority of wealthy people is those that inherited their wealth. Over time some wealthy people become poor, but with high income tax, even fewer become rich. This means that wealth becomes more and more concentrated among the few, which is somewhat counter-intuitive.

So in the US, wealth-mobility is greater than Denmark for example, resulting in the list on Wikipedia, where countries that are thought of as "unequal" actually are the most equal of all when it comes to wealth.

Article studying the effect: https://journals.plos.org/plosone/article?id=10.1371/journal...

Re:The puzzle of Europe by mrweasel on Monday March 08, 2021 @08:05AM (#26385259)
That doesn't make a ton of sense, research shows that social/wealth-mobility is greater in Denmark, compared to the US, by a lot: https://www.rockwoolfonden.dk/app/uploads/2018/03/Om-social-...

The reasoning is pretty much the opposite, the redistribution of health helps to move children out of their parents wealth/social-class. It might be that an individual adult in the US is able to move from poor to wealthy more easily, but I sort of doubt it.