So unless the commenter thought sukuk was illegitimate (I haven't seen them state this, maybe they have), wouldn't it be reasonable assume they consider sukuk acceptable?
Perhaps obviously, I'm only vaguely aware of Islamic finance, so I may be missing something basic.
*EDIT*:
I've just seen the comments where they appear to be condemning sukuk, or at least common implementations.
But it seems like their point is that they think it's simply slapping a different label on lending, which I'm inclined to agree with (especially if there are repurchase agreements and guaranteed returns).
It's well known that many Arab governments today have been installed by the Western colonialists. It's established history. We're still living the effects of post WWII colonization and Sykes-Picot. Of course, there is blame on us too, but to deny external influence is also ignorant.