How exactly is the possibility of vote dumping and vote flipping eliminated?

> How exactly is the possibility of vote dumping and vote flipping eliminated?

You cannot simply add ballots to the election as the totals would then be incorrect. (There would be more votes than people recorded as voting)

What is “Vote Dumping”? Do you mean inserting fraudulent paper ballots into the stored ballots to be counted?

The election was recorded on physical paper ballots. Are you alleging a vast conspiracy of bipartisan election workers and Republican Secretary of State monitors to replace the legitimate physical ballots with fake ones?

All ballots were hand counted and the initial Dominion machine count was confirmed accurate, so the allegation would be a conspiracy where Dominion scanners inaccurately counted the original paper ballots, then the paper ballots were secretly replaced with fakes to match the inaccurate Dominion counts? And this would have had to been done state-wide without a single whistleblower. It’s a ridiculous conspiracy theory if you try to write it out.

An election theft is conspiracy by definition. The question is whether the conspiracy is feasible. But it is feasible if only a few counties or cities committed fraud. What makes conspiracy infeasible is widespread collusion without a mechanism of coordination and ensuring secrecy. Collusion in a few large municipalities does not seem obviously out of the question.

> An election theft is conspiracy by definition.

No, its not.

Either a single actor with appropriate access or multiple independent actors not acting in coordination could effect the theft of an election without any conspiracy.

Conspiracy requires an agreement to work together; that might help with an election theft but it is not “by definition” necessary for election theft.

Multiple conspiracies of one?