Re:Stripe bans Trump campaign
by dragonwriter on Sunday January 10, 2021 @07:56PM
(#25722683)
> Is it exclusively because of his office?
Because of his office and the manner of use, yes, explicitly, under the limited public forum doctrine.
Re:Stripe bans Trump campaign
by marcus_holmes on Monday January 11, 2021 @06:11AM
(#25727377)
The First Amendment concerns the government's suppression of speech.
The POTUS is part of the US Government. Twitter is not.
So... no.
They only ruled that way because of the way Trump use(ed) his Twitter account - he used it to conduct government business, the white house themselves said his tweets are ‘official statements.’
https://www.cnn.com/2017/06/06/politics/trump-tweets-officia...
>Could it be construed the other direction?
No.
Yes. If he weren’t in office, there would be no obligation
Yes, it's exclusively because of his using his Twitter account as an official outlet for government statements.
Trump has appealed the decision to SCOTUS, which is still considering whether or not hear it [1]. Given that Trump's Twitter account is now banned, I suspect SCOTUS will dismiss the motion as mooted.
[1] See https://www.scotusblog.com/case-files/cases/trump-v-knight-f... for the docket information.
Is it exclusively because of his office? Could it be construed the other direction?