The same is with the possibility that a vaccinated person infects somebody else. There is some point behind which it could be said that some vaccine has "sterilizing immunity" even if some small level of viruses could be present somewhere. For the current vaccine, the question is if the viral load in some point after the infection is decreased at all, and if it is, how much.
At the moment, however, it's simply not known if, in this case, Pfizer vaccine provides sterilizing level of immunity, if, then when, and in which percentage of the vaccinated. At the moment more or less we just know that the vaccinated are less probable to develop symptoms. Efficacy of 95% here means only one of 20 vaccinated develops symptoms when exposed to the virus, so we know that it's also probable that at least 1 in 20, even after being vaccinated, could be able to infect somebody else while being in the "pre-symptomatic" phase (as it is believed by the researchers that one transmits the virus before one's symptoms starts). We also believe that asymptomatic are also able to transmit. We don't know how much the vaccine affects the transmission that could occur when a vaccinated person is exposed to an infected one, and then later comes in close contact with other unvaccinated persons.
Because of this, for practical purposes, you either have to arbitrarily set a threshold at which someone is considered non-infectious, ignoring that it is not impossible for that person to infect someone. Or you have to stop talking in absolutes entirely and just talk about probabilities.