> I understand, but on the same period, France grew a whole generation of brilliant mathematicians. I don't think that the two are completely unrelated.

If you could prove me that there were more brilliant mathematicians educated in France during the 60's/70's compared to other periods, I'd be interested.

Even if this is the case (which I'm not sure), at least it's pretty clear it lowered the median (whether this is good or not is another debate ;)